RSA 인증한 050-V70 덤프

RSA인증 050-V70 시험은 최근 제일 인기있는 인증시험입니다. IT업계에 종사하시는 분들은 자격증취득으로 자신의 가치를 업그레이드할수 있습니다. RSA인증 050-V70 시험은 유용한 IT자격증을 취득할수 있는 시험중의 한과목입니다. ITExamDump에서 제공해드리는RSA인증 050-V70 덤프는 여러분들이 한방에 시험에서 통과하도록 도와드립니다. 덤프를 공부하는 과정은 IT지식을 더 많이 배워가는 과정입니다. 시험대비뿐만아니라 많은 지식을 배워드릴수 있는 덤프를ITExamDump에서 제공해드립니다. ITExamDump덤프는 선택하시면 성공을 선택한것입니다.

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시험 번호/코드: 050-V70
시험 이름: RSA (RSA Data Loss Prevention Certified System Engineer 7.x Exam )
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NO.1 Which of the following is a tool that can be used in the RSA DLP Suite to create new content des?
A. The Entity Manager
B. The Dictionary Manager
C. The Fingerprint Manager
D. The Described Content Manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 RSA recommends that the RSA DLP Network Interceptor should not be the last MTA in the network
before email is sent on to the Internet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a new scan type available in RSA DLP Datacenter version 7.0?
A. Site scan
B. Resource scan
C. Repository scan
D. Coordinator Scan
Answer: C

RSA   050-V70   050-V70

NO.4 The only way to monitor and or block HTTPS web traffic in a DLP Network implementation is to:
A. Use a third party Load Balancer.
B. DLP Network can never monitor HTTPS.
C. Use a third party email encryption server.
D. Use a third party proxy that supports HTTPS such as Bluecoat.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two RSA DLP Network Appliances could detect employee posting company confidential
information to an online web forum? (Choose two)
A. DLP Network Sensor
B. DLP Network Controller
C. DLP Network Interceptor
D. DLP Network ICAPserver
E. DLP Suite Fingerprint Crawler
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Users and Groups cannot be defined in the Enterprise Manager interface. y must be brought in from an
external Microsoft Active Directory server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0 Enterprise Manager
installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 In DLP 7.0 and later, DLP Network Policy may be configured to allow an end user to release one of their
own emails that were quarantined as a result of that DLP policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? ose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be purchased from RSA.
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan results and requiring a
full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually disabled or enabled without
affecting the other sections.
Answer: A,E

RSA   050-V70   050-V70

NO.10 RSA DLP Datacenter 7.0 can scan Oracle and SQL Server databases for sensitive information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: CGEIT
시험 이름: ISACA (ISACA CGEIT Certification Practice Test)
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NO.1 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.10 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.12 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.13 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.15 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.16 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.18 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.19 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.21 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.22 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

ISACA   CGEIT기출문제   CGEIT   CGEIT

NO.24 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.26 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.28 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

ISACA자격증   CGEIT기출문제   CGEIT

NO.29 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

ISACA기출문제   CGEIT   CGEIT기출문제   CGEIT dumps

NO.30 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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시험 번호/코드: SC0-451
시험 이름: SCP (Tactical Perimeter Defense)
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NO.1 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

SCP자료   SC0-451   SC0-451자료   SC0-451

NO.2 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.3 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.5 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.6 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.8 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.9 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
<Missing>
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.10 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network.
According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.11 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451자격증   SC0-451자격증   SC0-451자격증

NO.12 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
<Missing>
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

SCP시험문제   SC0-451   SC0-451시험문제   SC0-451

NO.14 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.16 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.18 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

SCP인증   SC0-451   SC0-451기출문제

NO.19 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-451시험문제   SC0-451

NO.20 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.21 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.22 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.23 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451시험문제

NO.24 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.25 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.26 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-451   SC0-451   SC0-451

NO.27 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.28 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.29 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.30 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: SC0-501
시험 이름: SCP (Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI) )
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NO.1 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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NO.2 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.3 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.4 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.7 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.9 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.10 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.12 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.14 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.16 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.17 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.19 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.20 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.22 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.23 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.24 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.26 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.27 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.28 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.29 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.30 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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많은 분들이 고난의도인 IT관련인증시험을 응시하고 싶어 하는데 이런 시험은 많은 전문적인 IT관련지식이 필요합니다. 시험은 당연히 완전히 전문적인 IT관련지식을 터득하자만이 패스할 가능성이 높습니다. 하지만 지금은 많은 방법들로 여러분의 부족한 면을 보충해드릴 수 있으며 또 힘든 IT시험도 패스하실 수 있습니다. 혹은 여러분은 전문적인 IT관련지식을 터득하자들보다 더 간단히 더 빨리 시험을 패스하실 수 있습니다.

시험 번호/코드: PgMP
시험 이름: PMI (Program Management Professional (PgMP))
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Q&A: 342 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 Where are negative risks recorded?
A. Negative risk register
B. Risk management plan
C. Risk register
D. Issues log
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are the program manager of the NHQ Program. You are working with your program team to ensure
that the work in the program is done accurately and according to scope. You are also reviewing the team
inspection process that will need to be done to ensure that the work is being done according to the scope.
If the work is found to be defective it will need to be corrected before the program customers can inspect
the work. What process are you completing to ensure that the work is done accordingly to scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Quality assurance
D. Planning
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are the program manager for your organization. Part of your role as the program manager is to
train John, a new program manager, on the program processes within a program. John is confused as to
when the program team can be acquired in the program management lifecycle.
When will the program team be acquired for a program?
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Initiation
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are the program manager for your organization. Your program team has 43 people that all need to
be monitored and controlled. You would like to create a standardized report that you can use to monitor,
control, and record the performance of each staff member in your program. What type of report can you
create that will help you track your staff and their performance?
A. Performance reports
B. Staff variance reports
C. Exceptions report
D. Lessons learned
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are the program manager for your organization. Management has asked you to create a document
that will capture the stakeholders concerns, perceived threats, and specific objectives about the program
and its projects. What document is management asking you to create in this instance?
A. Requirements document
B. Project charter
C. Business case
D. Scope statement
Answer: D

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NO.6 What analysis type could you use in a program to compare the positive stakeholders and their position,
power, and influence over your program to the same variable components of the negative stakeholders in
your program?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Force field analysis
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are the program manager for your organization. You're currently working with the program director,
Nancy Holmes, to define a new program and the benefits the program should create. Of the following,
which is the best definition of a benefit a program creates?
A. A benefit is an outcome of the constituent projects within a program.
B. A benefit is a project and program deliverables that the organization may use immediately.
C. A benefit is a deliverable of a program or project that is worth more than the cost to create the
deliverable.
D. A benefit is an outcome of actions and behaviors that provides utility to stakeholders.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the program manager for your organization. Management would like to consider the present
value for your program. If your program is predicted to be worth $450,000 in two years what is the present
value of the program if the interest rate is six percent?
A. $400,498
B. $521,345
C. $505,620
D. $385,450
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are the program manager for your organization. When a project in your program is completed,
who will need to sign the certificate of completion?
A. The project manager
B. The program customer
C. The program stakeholders
D. The project management team
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your program has 121 stakeholders that you'll need to communicate with. Your communications
management plan defines how the communication should happen, what should be communicated, and
the expected modality of the communications. You'll also need which one of the following as an input to
the information distribution process in your program?
A. Change requests
B. Earned value management results
C. Stakeholder analysis plan
D. Performance reports
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are the program manager for your organization and you need to define all of the program
resources you'll need for your program. All of the following can be considered a program resource except
for which one?
A. A forklift
B. Materials for the installation of a new server
C. A positive risk response
D. Gary, an application developer
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are program manager for the HYH Program. Your program governance is requiring you to use
earned value management to predict how closely your program is tracking to the cost and schedule
baselines and to predict overall program performance. Which earned value management formula can you
use to predict how much more will need to be invested in the program based on current program
performance?
A. EV/AC
B. EV/PV
C. BAC/CPI
D. EAC-AC
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are a program manager for your organization. You have proposed a program to the management
that will last four years and will cost $35 million to create. Management has asked to see the program
charter and the proposed costs and benefits of the program. Management agrees to your program charter
and proposed to fund the program in increment at the completion of each milestone. What type of funding
does management proposed for this program?
A. Tentative
B. Step funding
C. Milestone approval
D. Phase gate estimating
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the present value of a program that will be worth $3,567,000 if it lasts for six years and the rate
of return is five percent?
A. $1,550,850
B. $3,532,000
C. $2,502,750
D. $2,661,750
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are the program manager for the SRQ Program. You have rejected several change requests for
the program scope. What must you do with the rejected change requests?
A. Communicate why the change request was rejected and record the results in the lessons learned
documentation for your program.
B. Inform the stakeholders that their change requests have been rejected.
C. Communicate the change request status to the stakeholders and record the results of the change
request in the change register.
D. Inform the stakeholders why their change requests have been rejected.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Harriet is the program manager of a large program that has a high profile and visibility in her
organization. Some of the stakeholders are negative and Harriet needs to work with these stakeholders to
address their fears, perceived threats, and concerns about the program. Which communication method is
considered to be the best approach for this scenario?
A. Face-to-face
B. Many-to-many
C. Ad hoc conversation
D. One-to-many
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have created a control chart for a repeatable process in your program. You have discovered that
the seven most recent measurements are all on the positive side of the mean in your control chart. What
is this phenomenon called?
A. Rule of Improvement
B. Mean Improvement
C. Rule of Seven
D. Low-Riding Mean
Answer: C

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NO.18 A project manager in your program has estimated the cost of a program to be $145,000. As the project
manager's project comes close to completion, the project manager realizes that he has still $27,876 left in
his project budget. He decides to add some additional features to the project's deliverables in an effort to
use the remaining budget. These additions will add value to the project and the project customer is likely
to enjoy these new features. This is an example of what term?
A. Gold plating
B. Errors and omissions
C. Expert judgment by the project manager
D. Value added change
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are the program manager of the GHY Program in your organization. It has come to your attention
that some of the project managers in your program are adding time to each project activity in an effort to
pad their durations in case some event happens in their project that will cause delays. What principle
should you share with these project managers that counterattack the concept of padding activities with
additional time?
A. Parkinson's Law
B. Law of Diminishing Returns
C. 80/20 Law
D. Pareto's Law
Answer: A

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NO.20 What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and
documenting changes created to the project scope?
A. Project Management Information System
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Scope Verification
D. Configuration Management System
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the formula to determine earned value (EV) for a program.?
A. Percent complete times percent remaining in the program
B. Percent completes time the program cost estimate
C. Percent complete times the program budget at completion
D. Percent complete times the program cost of labor and materials
Answer: C

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NO.22 Eric is the project manager of the NQQ Project and has hired the ZAS Corporation to complete part of
the project work for Eric's organization. Due to a change request the ZAS Corporation is no longer
needed on the project even though they have completed nearly all of the project work. Is Eric's
organization liable to pay the ZAS Corporation for the work they have completed so far on the project?
A. It depends on what the outcome of a lawsuit will determine.
B. No, the ZAS Corporation did not complete all of the work.
C. It depends on what the termination clause of the contract stipulates.
D. Yes, the ZAS Corporation did not choose to terminate the contract work.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Andy is the program manager of the HQN Program. This program is nearing its completion and there is
still $25,000 left in the program budget. Andy has asked the program team to identify some extra
deliverables that can be included in the program scope to improve the program deliverable but also to use
all of the funds in the budget. What term is assigned to the actions that Andy is trying to do in this
instance?
A. Value-added change requests
B. Zero based budgeting
C. Integrated change control
D. Gold plating
Answer: D

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NO.24 You are the program manager for your organization. You and your program team have been creating
and transferring the program benefits to operations as feasible in your program execution.
The process of delivering the program's benefits describes what process in program
management?
A. Quality control
B. Benefits management
C. Direct and manage program execution
D. Quality assurance
Answer: C

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NO.25 Olive is the program manager for her organization. She has created a request for proposal for a large
portion of her program. In this work to be procured she has set several requirements for the vendors to
participate. The chief among these requirements is a vendor must have at least four licensed electricians
in his team. This requirement for four licensed electricians is an example of which one of the following
terms?
A. Screening system
B. Scoring model
C. Vendor analysis requirements
D. Evaluation criteria
Answer: A

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NO.26 Mike is the program manager of the NHQ Program. Mike and a vendor are in disagreement over the
deliverable the vendor has created for Mike's program. Mike does not believe the vendor has correctly
created the deliverable, while the vendor is adamant that his company has indeed completed the contract.
Both parties have documented their stance in the debate.
This is an example of what?
A. Breach of contract
B. Issue
C. Risk
D. Claim
Answer: D

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NO.27 Your company and a competing company have created a teaming agreement for an opportunity.
Through this team agreement you and your competitor can complete a major program for a client.
This is, technically, a risk response for both organizations. What type of risk response are you dealing with
in this instance?
A. Teaming
B. Exploiting
C. Accepting
D. Sharing
Answer: D

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NO.28 You are the program manager of the BHG Program. One of the projects in your program will be using
new materials that are somewhat untested. You are worried that there may be delays and waste because
the project team is unaware of how to accurately use these materials. You elect to send the people that
will be using the new materials through training on how to complete their project work. You also allow
them to purchase some of the materials to experiment on their use before the actual project work is to be
done. You want to ensure that mistakes do not enter into the project. What type of action have you
provided in this scenario?
A. This is an example of a preventive action.
B. This is an example of team development.
C. This is an example of quality assurance.
D. This is an example of a corrective action.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Donna is the project manager for her organization. She is preparing a plan to manage changes to the
project should changes be requested. Her change management plan defines the process for
documenting, tracking, and determining if the changes should be approved or declined. What system is
considered the parent of the change control system documented in Donna's plan?
A. Quality Management System
B. Change Control System
C. Project Management Information System
D. Integrated Change Control System
Answer: C

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NO.30 Your program has been selected and its program charter is now being created. The program charter
defines all of the following characteristics except for which one?
A. Program constraints
B. Program scope
C. High-level objectives for the program
D. Project scope statement for all projects within the program
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: PMI-100
시험 이름: PMI (CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Exam)
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Q&A: 650 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved
project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?
A. Alter to task priorities.
B. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
C. Fast tracking or Crashing
D. Fast tracking.
E. Crashing
Answer: D

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NO.3 Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
Answer: D

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NO.5 A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
Answer: C

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NO.6 Communication always makes use of.
A. words
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. language
D. gestures
E. symbols
Answer: B

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NO.7 Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following:
A. performing contingent planning
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities)
D. identification of project risks.
E. developing planning alternatives
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?
A. maintenance and calibration
B. warranty repairs
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. scrap
E. rework
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following will be required to perform simu-lation for schedule risk analysis?
A. Activity list and activity attributes
B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
C. Schedule data and activity resource requirements
D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor's concepts concerning
Theory X and Theory Y managers?
A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to delegate
responsibility
C. Both 1) Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change,
and 2) Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
D. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
E. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 100-500
시험 이름: Zend-Technologies (Zend Framework Certification Exam)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
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Q&A: 202 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use
to accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 dumps   100-500   100-500

NO.2 You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <?php
$form->setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. <?php
echo "<form action=\"/uc/zend.php \" method=POST>";
C. <?php
$form->('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. <?php
$form->Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies자료   100-500   100-500   100-500자격증

NO.4 In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies기출문제   100-500덤프   100-500최신덤프

NO.5 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no
duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies pdf   100-500인증   100-500자료   100-500

NO.6 You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10)) If column c1 is unique, which of the
following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   100-500덤프   100-500 dumps   100-500시험문제

NO.7 Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies자격증   100-500 pdf   100-500   100-500

NO.8 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to
the PHP session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   100-500 dump   100-500 dumps   100-500 dump

NO.9 Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies   100-500 dump   100-500인증   100-500기출문제   100-500시험문제

NO.10 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies   100-500덤프   100-500   100-500

NO.11 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500자격증

NO.12 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle
database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e, Employeesm WHERE e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID
= m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m ON
e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

Zend-Technologies   100-500자격증   100-500최신덤프   100-500

NO.13 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies pdf   100-500 pdf   100-500자료

NO.14 Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state
when multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500덤프   100-500시험문제

NO.15 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
Answer: setBodyHTML()

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